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The way people use the little swiggle swaggle online is kinda cringe


Junkhead
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It is nyan of your business how your myaster talks. Nyaa~

Nyaa! And the bathroom smells nyasty like you. Go clean my litter box with your tongue, lazy servant, nyaa~! >:3

Hurry up, hoomyan slave, or else I am going to lick my anyus at nyight and then lick your face, nyaa~! >:p

I am a cute kitty kyat! Nyaaaa nyaaaa, nyaaaa nyaaaa, nyaa, nyaaaaaa~~~~~~~

Are you dying from cutenyess or cringinyess yet, nyaa~? X3

(=^w^=)

Nyaa~! ;3

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The tilde is a mungo cringe piece of punctuation. It's so bad that I can use "mungo" to describe it and still come out more dignified. There are only two acceptable uses of the tilde in English, to indicate an approximation and to be ironic, with the latter still being questionable. Any serious attempt to convey playfulness through the use of a tilde does, almost invariably, make you look like a sexual miscreant or a sociopath.

Edited by AnonymousSpeed
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7 minutes ago, XRay said:

Are you dying from cutenyess or cringinyess yet, nyaa~? X3

Meowsa that is bad! Mew got me beat! 

Nobodhee can try ho-der than that. Hee surrender!

 

Sorry for mixing my Minette Napkattiese with my Jack Frostiness, somewhat-damaged translator and all.

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14 minutes ago, XRay said:

I am going to lick my anyus at nyight and then lick your face

 

7 minutes ago, AnonymousSpeed said:

make you look like a sexual miscreant

Thanks for the compliment. I can star in 50 Shades of Gray now. ;p~~~

6 minutes ago, Interdimensional Observer said:

Minette Napkattiese

What is that? Google gave me nothing.

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1 hour ago, Junkhead said:

This makes me think of Narshen and Valter. Maybe that's why I associate it with "creepy pedophile".

I... you do realize playful has more meaning than like, the evil crazy villain type playful, right?

I do get the point but I feel like it's taking the thing a bit too seriously.

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13 minutes ago, XRay said:

What is that? Google gave me nothing.

Character from Bravely Second. She is a human whose mother used her in experiments with cat DNA to save humanity from a catastrophic plague, dresses in cat costume, acts like a cat, uses the Catmancer asterisk, talks to and can understand cats and speaks with a lot of "mews" mixed in.

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I am one of those people guilty of using the swiggle swaggle a lot tho

but I don't use it the way it's meant to be used (not with the way I see it used in other languages)

Edited by Freohr Datia
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1 hour ago, Interdimensional Observer said:

Character from Bravely Second. She is a human whose mother used her in experiments with cat DNA to save humanity from a catastrophic plague, dresses in cat costume, acts like a cat, uses the Catmancer asterisk, talks to and can understand cats and speaks with a lot of "mews" mixed in.

"Yes, your meowjesty."

The best part is that the big bad fairy also used that pun. I almost fell out of my seat laughing when I saw that scene.

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7 hours ago, Junkhead said:

They think they're being charming and alluring, but in reality sound like a creepy pedophile.

Says the guy who is enamoured with Sanaki :rolleyes:

Also, this thread: 

Spoiler

D0oQQ7i.jpg

 

Edited by NinjaMonkey
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On 13/07/2018 at 12:51 PM, Interdimensional Observer said:

Isn't Portuguese just a Spanish spinoff that happened to form into its own language and not just a dialect because for some odd reason the monarchal effort to unify the Iberian Peninsula never brought Portugal under permanent Castilian/Aragonese control though the Dark, Middle and Early Modern Ages? There was a period of personal monarchal union I know, but never was more an effort made to unify the administrations and elite societies into one polity.

No offense to Portuguese or Portugal, it's existence just seems less owed to "natural" boundaries or "ethnicities", and more the pure happenstance of centuries of politics, from little I know that is. Still is less of an oddity than say Luxembourg or Monaco- why did big powerful nation-states and empires allow these itty-bitty dots to live?

Portuguese is perhaps a case of defining a language as having "borders and an army", while a dialect does not. Of course, by this simple definition, American should be its own language apart from English, and that I refuse to accept!

My first language is portuguese. When I went to Chile I couldn’t understand anything people were saying.

so no, portuguese is not a dialect of spanish. Galician is a dialect of portuguese, though.

also, tildes are used in completely different ways in portuguese and spanish. In portuguese it’s used on the letters “a”, “e” and ”o” to make to make a “an”, “en” or “on” sound. In spanish it’s used on the letter “n” to make a sound like the “gn” in bologna. In portuguese we use “nh” for that.

also, Portugal and Spain have very distinct histories, and are way more distinct as ethnicities as something like danes and norses or scots and the english. Portugal has origins in the lusitanians, a tribe that wasn’t in spain at all. Portugal has been its own country since way before most european countries started even being formed or even thought of as a thing (the current country portugal dates back to the XII century IIRC), and even during the personal union of their kingdoms in the XVII century, they were considered different entities, even more than something like Austria Hungary.

portugal isn’t some small irrelevant country, it made many discoveries all over the world (arguably even more than Spain), and led an empire with possessions on all continents. Just look at how many places all over the world are named after portuguese explorers.

Edited by Nobody
Typos
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8 hours ago, Nobody said:

When I went to Chile I couldn’t understand anything people were saying.

yeah well same here buddy

Edited by Junkhead
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On 13/07/2018 at 12:51 PM, Interdimensional Observer said:

Of course, by this simple definition, American should be its own language apart from English, and that I refuse to accept!

Oh, and i want to add about this that the difference between brazilian portuguese and portuguese portuguese is bigger than the difference between british english and american english. No one who speaks both portuguese and english would ever claim portuguese and spanish are as close to each other as american english and british english. Grammatical rules are completely different. Not even verbal times are the same.

Edited by Nobody
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38 minutes ago, Nobody said:

Oh, and i want to add about this that brazilian portuguese is more different when compared to portuguese portuguse than british english is when compared to american english. No one who speaks both portuguese and english would ever claim portuguese and spanish are as close to each other as american english and british english. Grammatical rules are completely different. Not even verbal conjugations coincide.

I can understand Brazilian Portuguese being much more different than Portuguese Portuguese. A combination of several factors? Indigenous linguistic influences? Linguistic influences from the vast number of African slaves imported? The Portuguese of the masses of Brazil deviating radically from that of the peninsular elite?

 

And apologies for any misunderstanding on my part, I don't nor ever will claim to be knowledgeable here. My observations were just on a presumption (I try to always throw words in indicating what I do not know for certain) that if it did not on the surface appear that, from what little I read on the Reconquista, that Spain and Portugal were by some factor certain to remain separate, then there had to be a sort of linguistic root. And had political unity existed, the languages would not have deviated as much as they did with actual formal political separation.

Yet if you point out the grammar is different, and I do recall hearing that grammar is the true determinate of linguistic relations, for while words can be easily adopted, grammar remains resistant to change, then I must have been completely wrong. Another issue with my assumption lay with Catalan and Basque, insofar as either or both of them aren't mere Spanish dialects, so even if Portugal been consumed by Spain, it would not have meant it was not linguistically distinct.

And I did not mean to belittle Portugal at all. I'm loosely aware of its great feats in the Age of Discovery. Brazil, Angola and several other African possessions, and other possessions all the way into Southeast Asia. As a wannabe world historian, I must give credit where credit is due. Why if I had the funds I'd consider a visit to see the beautiful palace/monastery of Mafra, paid with and symbolic of Portuguese glory.

Edited by Interdimensional Observer
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9 hours ago, Nobody said:

also, Portugal and Spain have very distinct histories, and are way more distinct as ethnicities as something like danes and norses or scots and the english.

I don't know much about Portuguese or Spanish ancestry, but it's not necessarily untrue. Just, the British Isles have had a long history dating all the way back to the Picts (earlier known as Caledonians), their kingdom of Fortriu, and the Romans all the way up to when the Kingdom of Alba was created (merged with the Gaels). I believe it was at this time that the groups found in the British Isles were much more distinct from each other.

After that, Britain become more homogenous as Celts were the main ethnic group, even with Anglo-Saxons becoming involved. Hence why now, those of Celtic ancestry in Scotland and Cornwall are more similar to the English than they are to other Celtic groups, and while some claim Pictish ancestry, it is pretty much a defunct group that was assimilated.

So yeah, you're not wrong, because most people don't count the Kingdoms of Fortriu or Alba as anything other than precursors to Scotland, but unless my history is shaky (which it very well could be), it might be something to keep in mind - as well as the fact that lowland and highland Scotland are very different from each other.

Edited by Edgelord
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42 minutes ago, Interdimensional Observer said:

I can understand Brazilian Portuguese being much more different than Portuguese Portuguese. A combination of several factors? Indigenous linguistic influences? Linguistic influences from the vast number of African slaves imported? The Portuguese of the masses of Brazil deviating radically from that of the peninsular elite?

A lot of it is influence from the natives, africans and european immigrants from countries other than portugal (like, we use Ciao rather than Adeus for bye in Brazil) and we also use way more loanwords here in Brazil than they do in Portugal, but those differences are mostly related to vocabulary rather than grammar.  Most of it is just the language evolving independently. Like, Portuguese verb congation is extremely complex, and there are some verbal forms that are interchangeable, and Portugal mostly uses one while Brazil uses the other. For exemple, when talking about actions that are continuing, we in Brazil use the gerund, while Portuguese people mostly use a proposition plus the infinitive. So, if I want to say I'm singing, I'd say "estou cantando" (similar to "I'm singing"), while a Portuguese person would say "estou a cantar" (which would be somewhat similar to "I'm am to sing", which is, of course, a structure that doesn't exist in English).

Accents are also very different, but Brazil itself has accents that are very different from each other, mostly due to how diverse it is. 

 

Edited by Nobody
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